Second Hour Examination Form 0
Fall 2003
Part I. Multiple choice. Please circle the number of the answer that is most completely correct (2.5 pts. each).
1. Which of the following is not of Laurasian origin:
1. North America
2. Eurasia
3. Indian
4. Alaska
5. choose this answer if each of the above is of Laurasian origin
2. Two populations that occur in sympatry:
1. could be separate biological species
2. must be the same biological species
3. must be separate biological species
4. could be the same biological species
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
3. In the Linnaean hierarchy, the category the lies between the Class and the Family is the:
1. Genus
2. Order
3. Kingdom
4. Phylum
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
4. According to the rule of priority:
1.the most simple hypothesis is always true
2. the world is approximately 6,000 years old
3. all life comes from previously existing life
4. intelligent life on other planets is a certainty
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
5. The Himalaya mountains were uplifted by the collision of:
1. India with Africa
2. India with Eurasia
3. New Zealand with Tasmania
4. New Guinea with Sri Lanka
5. Madagascar with South America
6. Consider the following matrix of similarity values between four OTUs.
A B C D
A -
B 1.0 -
C .8 .4 -
D .6 .2 .2 -
With respect to the phenogram derived from this similarity matrix, which of the following statements is true:
1. A will join C at a similarity level of .8
2. A and B shared a common ancestor more recently than either did with C or D
3. D + B will join C at a similarity level of .2
4. C will join A+B at a similarity level of .6
5. A+B+C form a monophyletic group
7. Consider the following classification based on a cladistic analysis:
Genus 1
Species A
Species B
Species C
Genus 2
Species D
Species E
With respect to the relationships implied by this classification, which of the following is true:
1. Species B is more closely related to species A than it is to species D
2. Species C shared a common ancestor with species E more recently that it did with species A
3. Species D and species E are more similar to one another than either is to members of Genus 1
4. Members of genus 2 are more closely related on one another than are members of Genus 1
5. Choose this answer if none of the above is correct
8. According to the neutralist view, much of the electrophoretically-detected genetic variation in natural populations is:
1. maintained by natural selection
2. maintained by sexual selection
3. maintained by genetic drift
4. of no consequence to survival or reproductive success
5. maintained by forces not yet understood
9. In the absence of malaria, the recessive allele, s, that causes sickle-cell anemia would be
expected to:
1. increase in frequency
2. decrease in frequency
3. change in frequency in unpredictable ways
4. remain constant in frequency
5. replace the dominant allele
10. Independent evolutionary acquisition of similarity in unrelated groups of organisms is termed:
1. natural selection
2. parallel evolution
3. convergent evolution
4. divergent evolution
5. adaptive radiation
11. The speciation model that requires that a continuously distributed population be fragmented into two or more physically separated populations is termed the:
1. sympatric speciation model
2. evolutionary species model
3. genetic drift speciation model
4. polyploid speciation model
5. allopatric speciation model
12. Evolution within a lineage, without branching is termed:
1. anagenesis
2. anaphasic
3. cladogenesis
4. phylogenesis
5. ontogenesis
13. A cross between a horse and a donkey produces a viable hybrid, yet horses and donkeys are reproductively isolated due to:
1. mechanical isolation
2. ecological isolation
3. hybrid breakdown
4. hybrid sterility
5. hybrid inviability
14. An abrupt increase in the number of chromosome sets:
1. can result in a form of sympatric speciation
2. is called polyphyodonty
3. rarely occurs in plants
4. is called polyploidy
5. choose this answer if 1 and 4 are both correct
15. Structures that owe their similarity to convergent evolution are properly considered:
1. homologous
2. herologous
3. analogous
4. hyperolius
5. heterologous
16. Organisms are likely to fall short of perfection because:
1. environments are constantly changing
2. of inherent inferiority
3. of the pleiotropic effects of genes
4. of teleology
5. choose this answer if 1 and 3 are both correct
17. According to the biological species concept, the criterion for species status is:
1. independent evolutionary fate
2. allopatry
3. reproductive isolation
4. anagenesis
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
18. In 1849 a botanist working in the British Museum of Natural History described and named what she believed to be a new species of cactus, calling it Pachycereus spinosa, from Chihuahua, Mexico. She later discovered that her new species had been described and named by previous workers, first in 1741 as Opuntia gigantia, and in 1806 as Echinocarpus nudosa. Under the rule of priority, the correct name for this species is:
1. Opuntia gigantia
2. Pachycereus spinosa
3. Echinocarpus nudosa
4. choose this answer if none of the above are the correct name for this species
5. choose this answer if all of the above names can be correctly applied to this species
19. Consider the following statement: "There are two genuses, each with a single species. One genus contains the species rana sylvatica." As written the statement is incorrect because:
1. the plural for genus is genera, not genuses
2. the generic name Rana is always capitalized
3. the specific name, sylvatica, should be capitalized
4. there is no such thing as a genus with only a single species in it
5. choose this answer if 1 and 2 are both correct
20. Which of the following isolating mechanisms would be expected to evolve first:
1. temporal isolation
2. hybrid inviability
3. ecological isolation
4. behavioral (= ethological) isolation
5. mechanical isolation
21. Which of the following kinds of speciation has been most important in the evolution of Angiosperms (flowering plants):
1. polyploidy
2. allopatric speciation
3. special creation
4. parapatric speciation
5. amphipatric speciation
22. Which of the following sequences lists categories of the Linnaean hierarchy in ascending order, from least inclusive to most inclusive:
1. genus, order, family, phylum, class
2. species, genus, family, order, class
3. species, family genus, class, order
4. kingdom, phylum, class, order, genus
5. family, class, order, species, genus
23. Independent evolutionary acquisition of similarity in organisms is termed:
1. natural selection
2. parallel evolution
3. convergent evolution
4. divergent evolution
5. adaptive radiation
24. The phenomenon in which a single gene has multiple effects is termed:
1. parsimony
2. polytomy
3. pleiotropy
4. polygenetics
5. polyandry
25. A phenogram is a graphical representation that groups OTUs together on the basis of
1. overall similarity
2. recency of common ancestry
3. evolutionary relationship
4. cladogenetic information only
5. choose this answer if 1 and 4 are both correct
26. The hyomandibula of fishes is the homologue of the:
1. columella of reptiles
2. incus of amphibians
3. malleus of birds
4. stapes of mammals
5. choose this answer if 1 and 4 are both correct
27. According to plate tectonics, the earth's crust is being consumed at:
1. mid-oceanic ridges
2. fault zones
3. subduction zones
4. rain shadow deserts
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
28. The author of Systema Naturae, and the person responsible for our system of binomial nomenclature is:
1. Carl von Linné
2. Alfred Wegener
3. P. L. Sclater
4. Linnaeus
5. choose this answer if 1 and 4 are both correct
29. From an electrophoretic study of a population of your favorite organism, you discover that there are more heterozygous individuals and fewer homozygous individuals than predicted by Hardy-Weinberg. This would most likely represent an example of:
1. homozygote superiority
2. homozygote vigor
3. homozygosis
4. homozygote infallibility
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
30. Two closely related species of oak trees occur in sympatry. Quercus rubra flowers from late April to early June, whereas Quercus agrifolia flowers from about late July to mid-October. With respect to reproductive isolation, this represents an example of:
1. postzygotic isolation
2. temporal isolation
3. ecological isolation
4. behavioral isolation
5. gametic isolation
31. Segments of a single evolving lineage of ancestor-descendant populations are often recognized by paleontologists as separate species. Such species are properly called:
1. allopatric species
2. biological species
3. evolutionary species
4. chronospecies
5. type species
32. The speciation model that does not require that a population be fragmented into two or more physically separated populations is termed the:
1. sympatric speciation model
2. evolutionary species model
3. genetic drift speciation model
4. heterozygous speciation model
5. allopatric speciation model
33. The "rare-male" mating advantage is an example of:
1. homozygote superiority
2. frequency-independent selection
3. disruptive selection
4. genetic bottlenecking
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
34. The species-specific courtship patterns of male salamanders represent an example of:
1. post-zygotic isolating mechanisms
2. behavioral isolating mechanisms
3. pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms
4. ecological isolating mechanisms
5. choose this answer if 2 and 3 are both correct
35. A likely explanation for the fact that the copulatory organs of male snakes and lizards are
anatomically complex and show species-specific anatomical features is that:
1. they serve to increase the life-time reproductive success of the population
2. they represent an example of non-adaptive traits
3. they confer mechanical isolation such that males can only fertilize females of their own
species
4. they serve as useful tools for taxonomists
5. snakes represent the extreme in anatomical simplification
36. According to the selectionist view, the unexpectedly high levels of genetic variation that were found in natural populations in the 1960's and 1970's were explained as:
1. a consequence, at least in part, of agents of selection
2. mutation
3. gene flow
4. of no evolutionary significance, and thus not eliminated by natural selection
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
37. The biological species concept cannot be applied to organisms that are:
1. sympatric
2. nearly indistinguishable in their anatomy
3. reproductively isolated
4. capable of forming viable hybrids
5. reproduce without sex (i.e., asexually)
38. The breakup of Pangaea resulted in a northern "supercontinent" called:
1. Laurentide
2. Laurasia
3. Eurasia
4. Laurwanda
5. Gondwanaland
39. Costa Rica, Panama, and Colombia belong to which of the following biogeographic realms:
1. Neotropical
2. Nearctic
3. Palearctic
4. Ethiopian
5. choose this answer if none of the above is correct
40. The evolutionary history of a group of related organisms is termed its:
1. phylogeny
2. orthography
3. oligarchy
4. ontogeny
5. philopatry